ITIL Foundation Q&A
QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management,
Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical
skilltominimise the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
technical or supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
are low and this helps to minimise salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning
Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
Exhibit:
Please refer to the exhibit:
A. 1 only
B. Neither of the above
C. 2 only
D. Both of the above
Which of the statements is CORRECT for every process?
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical
skilltominimise the cost of training them
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
technical or supervisory roles
D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
are low and this helps to minimise salaries
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a singlePlan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan andDo,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be
gathered and analysed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question "Did
we get there?"?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Transition
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
1. Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements
2. Designing the service so it can meet the targets
3. Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration
Management?
A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager;
Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator
B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager;
Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
C. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change
Manager
D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst;
Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 24
In many organisations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk.
It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
A. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
B. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
D. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 26
The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
A. Business Value
B. Functionality
C. IT Assets
D. Service Level Requirements
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 27
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they
contribute is?
A. Whether to buy an application or build it
B. Should application developmentbeoutsourced
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Where the vendor of an applicationislocated
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 28
What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
A. Service Solution
B. Customer / Business Needs
C. Service Release
D. Service Requirements
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
A. Customer / Business Needs
B. Service Release
C. Service Requirements
D. Service Solution
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 30
Service Acceptance criteria are used to?
A. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle
B. Ensure Portfolio Management is in place
C. Ensure delivery and support of a service
D. Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 31
Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
A. Service Desk
B. Facilities Management
C. Technical Management
D. IT Operations Control
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following are Service Desk organisational structures?
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
1. Local Service Desk
2. Virtual Service Desk
3. IT Help Desk
4. Follow the Sun
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
"Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of services". These specialised organisational capabilities include which of
the following?
A. Markets and Customers
B. Functions and Processes
C. People, products and technology
D. Applications and Infrastructure
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
D. To source and deliver the components of standardservicesthat have been requested
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 35
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
B. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
C. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
D. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 36
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets?
A. Availability Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Continual Service Improvement
D. Business Relationship Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 37
What are the three Service Provider business models?
A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
C. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 38
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Data
B. Knowledge
C. Wisdom
D. Information
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 39
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
A. Incident Management
B. Requestfulfilment
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Access management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service
Operation
2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services
A. Both of the above
B. Neither of the above
C. 2 only
D. 1 only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 41
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
C. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
D. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. Overall business riskisoptimised
B. Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration
Management system
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
A. By installing changes to fix problems
B. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution
C. ByissuingRFCs for permanent solutions
D. By working with users to change their IT configurations
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 45
Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part
of which process?
A. Service Portfolio Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Component Capacity Management
D. Demand Management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 46
Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A. Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported.
B. Provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Mgmt.
C. Plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release.
D. Provide training and certification in project management.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
B. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
Service
C. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred
D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 48
The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?
A. The design and development of new services
B. The design and development of service improvements
C. The design and development of services and service management processes
D. The day-to-day operation and support of services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 49
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan andDo,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
D. There should be a singlePlan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 50
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
A. Access management
B. Requestfulfilment
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 51
To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
B. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene
C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 52
Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the
following items need to be identified?
A. BusinessObjectives,IT Objectives, Process Metrics
B. Process Models, Goals and Objectives
C. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals
D. BusinessandIT Strategy and Process Definitions
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 53
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above
Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 54
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset?
A. Resources and Capabilities
B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Utility and Warranty
D. Applications and Infrastructure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 55
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A change that correctly follows the required change process
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 56
What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An error message to the user of an application
B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
C. A type of Incident
D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 57
Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfilment process?
A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses
and software media)
B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre-
defined approval and qualification process exists
C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the
procedure for obtaining them
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 58
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
B. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
C. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 59
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Data
B. Wisdom
C. Information
D. Knowledge
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. It is measurable
B. Delivers specific results
C. A method of structuring an organization
D. Responds to specific events
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 61
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning
Contracts?
A. IT Designer/Architect
B. Process Manager
C. Service Catalogue Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 62
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 63
The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual
components
B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and
effectiveness
C. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology
metrics include availability and capacity
D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics
measure the infrastructure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 64
The term 'Service Management' is best used to describe?
A. Units oforganisations with roles to perform certain activities
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of
services
C. The management of functions withinanorganisation to perform certain activities
D. A setofspecialised organisational capabilities for providing functions to customers in the form of
services
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
Service
D. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 66
A. TheRequestFulfilment Process Manager
B. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
C. The Service Desk Manager
D. The Service Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 67
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Service Catalogue Management
D. Capacity Management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 68
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 69
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
B. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 70
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Performance analysis
B. Recording Configuration Items
C. Defining roles and responsibilities
D. Monitoring services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 71
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business
objectives
B. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
C. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
D. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the
objective of achieving Best Practice"
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 72
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
B. A change that is made as the result of an audit
C. A change that correctly follows the required change process
D. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 73
What are the three Service Provider business models?
A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
C. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
D. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 74
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business
objectives
B. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the
objective of achieving Best Practice"
C. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
D. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 75
A Service Level Agreement is?
A. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party
B. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer
C. An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier
D. An agreement between the Service Provider and aninternalorganisation
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 76
One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?
A. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
B. Only requirements needed and agreed
C. Only capabilities needed and agreed
D. Only resources and capabilities needed
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 77
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?
A. The Service Desk Manager
B. The Service Manager
C. TheRequestFulfilment Process Manager
D. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 78
Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT
requirements oftheorganisation
B. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process
and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 79
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
B. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
C. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 80
Staff in an IT department areexperts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what
services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Extreme focus on cost
B. Extreme focus on responsiveness
C. Vendor focused
D. Extreme internal focus
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 81
Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A. Where are we now?
B. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
C. Prepare for action
D. Define what you should measure
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 82
Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT
requirements oftheorganisation
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process
and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 83
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management,
Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Operation
B. Service Transition
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Design
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 84
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?
A. TheRequestFulfilment Process Manager
B. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
C. The Service Manager
D. The Service Desk Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 85
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Catalogue Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 86
Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of softwareandlicences
C. A secure library where definitiveauthorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and
protected
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are
stored and protected
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 87
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
C. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 88
Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration
Management system
B. Overall business riskisoptimised
C. Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
D. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 89
Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?
A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure
B. Providing guidance to IT Operations about how best to manage the application
C. Deciding whether to buy or build an application
D. Assisting in the design of the application
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 90
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Performance analysis
C. Recording Configuration Items
D. Monitoring services
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 91
Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A. Prepare for action
B. Define what you should measure
C. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
D. Where are we now?
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 92
What is the definition of an Alert?
A. A type of Incident
B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
C. An error message to the user of an application
D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 93
Which one of the following statements about Incident reporting and logging is correct?
A. All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk
activity
B. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as problems because technical staff
manage infrastructure devices not services
C. Incident can only be reported by users, since they are only the only people who know when a
service has been disrupted
D. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruptions or potential disruption to normal
service. This includes technical staff
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 94
To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene
B. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 95
In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome
be in terms of responsiveness to customer needs?
A. Customersneeds will be met more easily because of the improved stability of the services with
fewer failures to disrupt timely delivery
B. From the information given, it is not possible to comment regarding the impact on
responsiveness of over-emphasis on stability
C. There is only likely to be a positive outcome from improved stability - the customers must be
made fully aware of this and their expectations regarding responsiveness must be managed
D. It is possible that responsiveness may sufferandcustomers needs may not be met within
business timescales
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 96
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Knowledge
B. Data
C. Information
D. Wisdom
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 97
Major Incidents require?
A. Less documentation
B. Longer timescales
C. Less urgency
D. Separate procedures
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 98
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
C. The design of Market Spaces
D. The design of new or changed services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 99
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management?
A. Eliminating recurring Incidents
B. Minimising the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented
C. Preventing Problems and resulting Incidents from happening
D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possibleandminimising adverse impact on the
business
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 100
Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B. A secure library wheredefinitiveauthorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and
protected
C. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of softwareandlicences
D. A secure library wheredefinitiveauthorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are
stored and protected
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 101
Which of the following BEST describes a 'Major Incident'?
A. An Incident that is so complex that the Service Desk takes longer than five times the normal
time to log it
B. An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve
C. An Incident which has a high impact on the business
D. An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before any workaround can
be found
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 102
Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT
requirements oftheorganisation
B. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process
and the service designs that are produced
C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 103
Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
A. Service Desk
B. IT Operations Control
C. Technical Management
D. Facilities Management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 104
An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to
suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Excessive focus on quality
B. Excessively reactive
C. Excessively proactive
D. Excessive focus on cost
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 105
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?
A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To source and deliver the components of standardservicesthat have been requested
D. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 106
What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An error message to the user of an application
B. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
C. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
D. A type of Incident
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 107
"Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of services". These specialised organisational capabilities include which of
the following?
A. Functions and Processes
B. Markets and Customers
C. Applications and Infrastructure
D. People, products and technology
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 108
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Continual Service Improvement
C. Service Level Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 109
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
B. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
C. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the
objective of achieving Best Practice"
D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business
objectives
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 110
How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organisation?
A. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered
B. Showing the business impact of a change
C. Displaying the relationships between configuration items
D. To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 111
Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance
drops below acceptable limits?
A. Service Level Management
B. Performance Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Event Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 112
In many organisations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important
that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
A. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
D. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 113
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they
contribute is?
A. Whether to buy an application or build it
B. Should application developmentbeoutsourced
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Where the vendor of an applicationislocated
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 114
Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. All of the above
D. 3 only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 115
Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
A. Access Management
B. Incident Management
C. RequestFulfilment
D. Change Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 116
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. Delivers specific results
B. A method of structuringanorganisation
C. Responds to specific events
D. It is measurable
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 117
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset?
A. Applications and Infrastructure
B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 118
Staff in an IT department areexperts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what
services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Extreme internal focus
B. Extreme focus on cost
C. Extreme focus on responsiveness
D. Vendor focused
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 119
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. Delivers specific results
B. Responds to specific events
C. It is measurable
D. A method of structuringanorganisation
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 120
Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
A. IT Operations Management
B. Applications Management
C. Service Desk
D. Technical Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 121
Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts.
B. Development, negotiation and agreement of Organisational Level Agreements
C. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements.
D. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Portfolio
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 122
Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?
A. Software design
B. Process design
C. Environment design
D. Strategy design
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 123
Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
A. Governance
B. Service Level Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Service Strategy
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 124
Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?
A. Applications Management
B. Service Desk
C. Technical Management
D. IT Operations Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 125
Who is responsible for defining Key Performance Indicators for Change Management?
A. The Service Owner
B. The Continual Service Improvement Manager
C. The Change Advisory Board (CAB)
D. The Change Management Process Owner
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 126
The difference between a Service Level Agreement (SLA) and an Operional Level Agreement
(OLA) is that:
A. An SLA is legally binding, an OLA is a best efforts agreement
B. An SLA defines the service to be provided, an OLA defines internal support needed to deliver
the service
C. An SLA defines Service Level Requirements, an OLA defines Service Level Targets
D. An SLA is with an external customer, an OLA is with an internal customer
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 127
Which of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy?
A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
B. To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT services
C. To transform Service Management into a strategic asset
D. To underscore the importance of services in the global economy
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 128
Which of the following best describes a Service Request?
A. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interface
B. A request from a User for information or advice, or for a Standard Change
C. Any request for change that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a
CAB meeting
D. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 129
Which of the following are the main objectives of incident Management? Select all that apply
A. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
B. To automatically detect service affecting Events
C. The restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 130
What are the categories of event described in the ITIL Service Operation book?
A. Informational, Scheduled, Normal
B. Scheduled, Unscheduled, Emergency
C. Informational, Warning, Exception
D. Warning, Reactive, Proactive
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 131
Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?
A. Supplier Management and Service Level Management
B. Supplier Management and Demand Management
C. Demand Management and Service Level Management
D. Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 132
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change Management
B. Service Portfolio Management
C. Supplier Management
D. Continual Service Improvement
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 133
Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of
the Service Lifecycle?
A. Service Strategy
B. Continual Service Improvement
C. Service Operation
D. Service Design
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 134
Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
A. Demand Management
B. Incident Management
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. RequestFulfilment
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 135
Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?
A. Measurement, methods and metrics
B. Service Design Package
C. Service Portfolio Design
D. Process definitions
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 136
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?
A. Review andanalyse Service Level Achievement results
B. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes
C. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction
D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 137
Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?
1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Bothofthe above
D. Noneofthe above
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 138
Access Management is closely related to which other processes?
A. Availability Management only
B. Information Security Management and 3rd line support
C. Information Security Management and Availability Management
D. Information Security Management only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 139
Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernable trends?
A. Service Level Management
B. Problem Management
C. Change Management
D. Event Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 140
Which is the CORRECT list for the three levels of a multi level Service Level Agreement(SLA)?
A. Technology, Customer, User
B. Corporate, Customer, Service
C. Corporate, Customer, Technology
D. Service, User, IT
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 141
Which of these is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service Improvement Model?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution;
Continually Improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we
keep the momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the
plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented;Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did
we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 143
Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages
1. Monitor, Measure and Review
2. Continual Improvement
3. Implement Initiatives
4. Plan for Improvement
A. 1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 Act
B. 3 Plan, 2 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act
C. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act
D. 2 Plan, 3 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 142
A Know Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround
has been found. Is this a valid approach?
A. Yes
B. No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created
C. No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented
D. No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problem
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 144
Which of the following is NOT a Service Desk type recognised in the Service Operation volume of
ITIL?
A. Local
B. Centralised
C. Holistic
D. Virtual
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 145
Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?
A. The value of a service
B. Customer satisfaction
C. Total cost of ownership
D. Key performance indicators
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 146
Service Design emphasises the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four P's" include Partners,
People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?
A. Profit
B. Preparation
C. Products
D. Potential
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 147
Which stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is BEST described as
'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the
principles defined in the vision?
A. Where are we now?
B. Where do we want to be?
C. How do we get there?
D. Did we get there?
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 148
Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?
1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets
2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability
3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability
goals
A. 1 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 149
In which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created?
A. An event indicates that a redundant network segment has failed but it has not impacted any
users
B. An Incident is passed to second-level support
C. A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring
Incidents
D. Incident Management has found a workaround but needs some assistance in implementing it
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 150
Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of
compliance with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value
through which part of the service lifecycle?
A. Service Transition
B. Risk Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management,
Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical
skilltominimise the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
technical or supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
are low and this helps to minimise salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning
Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
Exhibit:
Please refer to the exhibit:
A. 1 only
B. Neither of the above
C. 2 only
D. Both of the above
Which of the statements is CORRECT for every process?
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical
skilltominimise the cost of training them
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
technical or supervisory roles
D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
are low and this helps to minimise salaries
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a singlePlan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan andDo,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be
gathered and analysed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question "Did
we get there?"?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Transition
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
1. Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements
2. Designing the service so it can meet the targets
3. Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration
Management?
A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager;
Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator
B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager;
Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
C. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change
Manager
D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst;
Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 24
In many organisations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk.
It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
A. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
B. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
D. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 26
The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
A. Business Value
B. Functionality
C. IT Assets
D. Service Level Requirements
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 27
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they
contribute is?
A. Whether to buy an application or build it
B. Should application developmentbeoutsourced
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Where the vendor of an applicationislocated
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 28
What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
A. Service Solution
B. Customer / Business Needs
C. Service Release
D. Service Requirements
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
A. Customer / Business Needs
B. Service Release
C. Service Requirements
D. Service Solution
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 30
Service Acceptance criteria are used to?
A. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle
B. Ensure Portfolio Management is in place
C. Ensure delivery and support of a service
D. Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 31
Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
A. Service Desk
B. Facilities Management
C. Technical Management
D. IT Operations Control
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following are Service Desk organisational structures?
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
1. Local Service Desk
2. Virtual Service Desk
3. IT Help Desk
4. Follow the Sun
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
"Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of services". These specialised organisational capabilities include which of
the following?
A. Markets and Customers
B. Functions and Processes
C. People, products and technology
D. Applications and Infrastructure
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
D. To source and deliver the components of standardservicesthat have been requested
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 35
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
B. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
C. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
D. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 36
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets?
A. Availability Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Continual Service Improvement
D. Business Relationship Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 37
What are the three Service Provider business models?
A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
C. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 38
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Data
B. Knowledge
C. Wisdom
D. Information
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 39
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
A. Incident Management
B. Requestfulfilment
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Access management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service
Operation
2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services
A. Both of the above
B. Neither of the above
C. 2 only
D. 1 only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 41
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
C. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
D. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. Overall business riskisoptimised
B. Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration
Management system
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
A. By installing changes to fix problems
B. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution
C. ByissuingRFCs for permanent solutions
D. By working with users to change their IT configurations
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 45
Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part
of which process?
A. Service Portfolio Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Component Capacity Management
D. Demand Management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 46
Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A. Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported.
B. Provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Mgmt.
C. Plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release.
D. Provide training and certification in project management.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
B. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
Service
C. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred
D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 48
The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?
A. The design and development of new services
B. The design and development of service improvements
C. The design and development of services and service management processes
D. The day-to-day operation and support of services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 49
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan andDo,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
D. There should be a singlePlan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
implement Continual Improvement
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 50
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
A. Access management
B. Requestfulfilment
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 51
To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
B. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene
C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 52
Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the
following items need to be identified?
A. BusinessObjectives,IT Objectives, Process Metrics
B. Process Models, Goals and Objectives
C. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals
D. BusinessandIT Strategy and Process Definitions
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 53
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above
Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 54
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset?
A. Resources and Capabilities
B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Utility and Warranty
D. Applications and Infrastructure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 55
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A change that correctly follows the required change process
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 56
What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An error message to the user of an application
B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
C. A type of Incident
D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 57
Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfilment process?
A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses
and software media)
B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre-
defined approval and qualification process exists
C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the
procedure for obtaining them
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 58
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
B. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
C. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 59
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Data
B. Wisdom
C. Information
D. Knowledge
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. It is measurable
B. Delivers specific results
C. A method of structuring an organization
D. Responds to specific events
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 61
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning
Contracts?
A. IT Designer/Architect
B. Process Manager
C. Service Catalogue Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 62
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 63
The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual
components
B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and
effectiveness
C. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology
metrics include availability and capacity
D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics
measure the infrastructure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 64
The term 'Service Management' is best used to describe?
A. Units oforganisations with roles to perform certain activities
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of
services
C. The management of functions withinanorganisation to perform certain activities
D. A setofspecialised organisational capabilities for providing functions to customers in the form of
services
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
Service
D. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 66
A. TheRequestFulfilment Process Manager
B. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
C. The Service Desk Manager
D. The Service Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 67
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Service Catalogue Management
D. Capacity Management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 68
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 69
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
B. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 70
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Performance analysis
B. Recording Configuration Items
C. Defining roles and responsibilities
D. Monitoring services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 71
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business
objectives
B. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
C. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
D. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the
objective of achieving Best Practice"
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 72
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A pre-authorised change that has an accepted and established procedure
B. A change that is made as the result of an audit
C. A change that correctly follows the required change process
D. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 73
What are the three Service Provider business models?
A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
C. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
D. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 74
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business
objectives
B. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the
objective of achieving Best Practice"
C. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
D. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 75
A Service Level Agreement is?
A. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party
B. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer
C. An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier
D. An agreement between the Service Provider and aninternalorganisation
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 76
One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?
A. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
B. Only requirements needed and agreed
C. Only capabilities needed and agreed
D. Only resources and capabilities needed
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 77
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?
A. The Service Desk Manager
B. The Service Manager
C. TheRequestFulfilment Process Manager
D. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 78
Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT
requirements oftheorganisation
B. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process
and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 79
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
B. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
C. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 80
Staff in an IT department areexperts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what
services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Extreme focus on cost
B. Extreme focus on responsiveness
C. Vendor focused
D. Extreme internal focus
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 81
Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A. Where are we now?
B. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
C. Prepare for action
D. Define what you should measure
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 82
Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT
requirements oftheorganisation
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process
and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 83
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management,
Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Operation
B. Service Transition
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Design
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 84
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?
A. TheRequestFulfilment Process Manager
B. TheRequestFulfilment Process Owner
C. The Service Manager
D. The Service Desk Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 85
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Catalogue Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 86
Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of softwareandlicences
C. A secure library where definitiveauthorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and
protected
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are
stored and protected
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 87
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
C. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 88
Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration
Management system
B. Overall business riskisoptimised
C. Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
D. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 89
Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?
A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure
B. Providing guidance to IT Operations about how best to manage the application
C. Deciding whether to buy or build an application
D. Assisting in the design of the application
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 90
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Performance analysis
C. Recording Configuration Items
D. Monitoring services
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 91
Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A. Prepare for action
B. Define what you should measure
C. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
D. Where are we now?
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 92
What is the definition of an Alert?
A. A type of Incident
B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
C. An error message to the user of an application
D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 93
Which one of the following statements about Incident reporting and logging is correct?
A. All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk
activity
B. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as problems because technical staff
manage infrastructure devices not services
C. Incident can only be reported by users, since they are only the only people who know when a
service has been disrupted
D. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruptions or potential disruption to normal
service. This includes technical staff
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 94
To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene
B. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 95
In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome
be in terms of responsiveness to customer needs?
A. Customersneeds will be met more easily because of the improved stability of the services with
fewer failures to disrupt timely delivery
B. From the information given, it is not possible to comment regarding the impact on
responsiveness of over-emphasis on stability
C. There is only likely to be a positive outcome from improved stability - the customers must be
made fully aware of this and their expectations regarding responsiveness must be managed
D. It is possible that responsiveness may sufferandcustomers needs may not be met within
business timescales
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 96
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Knowledge
B. Data
C. Information
D. Wisdom
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 97
Major Incidents require?
A. Less documentation
B. Longer timescales
C. Less urgency
D. Separate procedures
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 98
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
C. The design of Market Spaces
D. The design of new or changed services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 99
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management?
A. Eliminating recurring Incidents
B. Minimising the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented
C. Preventing Problems and resulting Incidents from happening
D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possibleandminimising adverse impact on the
business
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 100
Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B. A secure library wheredefinitiveauthorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and
protected
C. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of softwareandlicences
D. A secure library wheredefinitiveauthorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are
stored and protected
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 101
Which of the following BEST describes a 'Major Incident'?
A. An Incident that is so complex that the Service Desk takes longer than five times the normal
time to log it
B. An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve
C. An Incident which has a high impact on the business
D. An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before any workaround can
be found
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 102
Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT
requirements oftheorganisation
B. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process
and the service designs that are produced
C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 103
Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
A. Service Desk
B. IT Operations Control
C. Technical Management
D. Facilities Management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 104
An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to
suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Excessive focus on quality
B. Excessively reactive
C. Excessively proactive
D. Excessive focus on cost
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 105
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?
A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To source and deliver the components of standardservicesthat have been requested
D. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 106
What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An error message to the user of an application
B. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
C. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
D. A type of Incident
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 107
"Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of services". These specialised organisational capabilities include which of
the following?
A. Functions and Processes
B. Markets and Customers
C. Applications and Infrastructure
D. People, products and technology
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 108
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Continual Service Improvement
C. Service Level Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 109
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
B. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
C. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the
objective of achieving Best Practice"
D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business
objectives
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 110
How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organisation?
A. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered
B. Showing the business impact of a change
C. Displaying the relationships between configuration items
D. To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 111
Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance
drops below acceptable limits?
A. Service Level Management
B. Performance Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Event Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 112
In many organisations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important
that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
A. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
D. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 113
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they
contribute is?
A. Whether to buy an application or build it
B. Should application developmentbeoutsourced
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Where the vendor of an applicationislocated
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 114
Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. All of the above
D. 3 only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 115
Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
A. Access Management
B. Incident Management
C. RequestFulfilment
D. Change Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 116
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. Delivers specific results
B. A method of structuringanorganisation
C. Responds to specific events
D. It is measurable
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 117
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset?
A. Applications and Infrastructure
B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 118
Staff in an IT department areexperts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what
services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Extreme internal focus
B. Extreme focus on cost
C. Extreme focus on responsiveness
D. Vendor focused
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 119
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. Delivers specific results
B. Responds to specific events
C. It is measurable
D. A method of structuringanorganisation
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 120
Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
A. IT Operations Management
B. Applications Management
C. Service Desk
D. Technical Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 121
Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts.
B. Development, negotiation and agreement of Organisational Level Agreements
C. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements.
D. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Portfolio
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 122
Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?
A. Software design
B. Process design
C. Environment design
D. Strategy design
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 123
Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
A. Governance
B. Service Level Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Service Strategy
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 124
Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?
A. Applications Management
B. Service Desk
C. Technical Management
D. IT Operations Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 125
Who is responsible for defining Key Performance Indicators for Change Management?
A. The Service Owner
B. The Continual Service Improvement Manager
C. The Change Advisory Board (CAB)
D. The Change Management Process Owner
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 126
The difference between a Service Level Agreement (SLA) and an Operional Level Agreement
(OLA) is that:
A. An SLA is legally binding, an OLA is a best efforts agreement
B. An SLA defines the service to be provided, an OLA defines internal support needed to deliver
the service
C. An SLA defines Service Level Requirements, an OLA defines Service Level Targets
D. An SLA is with an external customer, an OLA is with an internal customer
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 127
Which of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy?
A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
B. To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT services
C. To transform Service Management into a strategic asset
D. To underscore the importance of services in the global economy
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 128
Which of the following best describes a Service Request?
A. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interface
B. A request from a User for information or advice, or for a Standard Change
C. Any request for change that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a
CAB meeting
D. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 129
Which of the following are the main objectives of incident Management? Select all that apply
A. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
B. To automatically detect service affecting Events
C. The restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 130
What are the categories of event described in the ITIL Service Operation book?
A. Informational, Scheduled, Normal
B. Scheduled, Unscheduled, Emergency
C. Informational, Warning, Exception
D. Warning, Reactive, Proactive
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 131
Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?
A. Supplier Management and Service Level Management
B. Supplier Management and Demand Management
C. Demand Management and Service Level Management
D. Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 132
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change Management
B. Service Portfolio Management
C. Supplier Management
D. Continual Service Improvement
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 133
Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of
the Service Lifecycle?
A. Service Strategy
B. Continual Service Improvement
C. Service Operation
D. Service Design
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 134
Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
A. Demand Management
B. Incident Management
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. RequestFulfilment
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 135
Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?
A. Measurement, methods and metrics
B. Service Design Package
C. Service Portfolio Design
D. Process definitions
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 136
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?
A. Review andanalyse Service Level Achievement results
B. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes
C. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction
D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 137
Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?
1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Bothofthe above
D. Noneofthe above
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 138
Access Management is closely related to which other processes?
A. Availability Management only
B. Information Security Management and 3rd line support
C. Information Security Management and Availability Management
D. Information Security Management only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 139
Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernable trends?
A. Service Level Management
B. Problem Management
C. Change Management
D. Event Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 140
Which is the CORRECT list for the three levels of a multi level Service Level Agreement(SLA)?
A. Technology, Customer, User
B. Corporate, Customer, Service
C. Corporate, Customer, Technology
D. Service, User, IT
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 141
Which of these is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service Improvement Model?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution;
Continually Improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we
keep the momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the
plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented;Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did
we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 143
Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages
1. Monitor, Measure and Review
2. Continual Improvement
3. Implement Initiatives
4. Plan for Improvement
A. 1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 Act
B. 3 Plan, 2 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act
C. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act
D. 2 Plan, 3 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 142
A Know Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround
has been found. Is this a valid approach?
A. Yes
B. No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created
C. No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented
D. No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problem
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 144
Which of the following is NOT a Service Desk type recognised in the Service Operation volume of
ITIL?
A. Local
B. Centralised
C. Holistic
D. Virtual
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 145
Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?
A. The value of a service
B. Customer satisfaction
C. Total cost of ownership
D. Key performance indicators
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 146
Service Design emphasises the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four P's" include Partners,
People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?
A. Profit
B. Preparation
C. Products
D. Potential
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 147
Which stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is BEST described as
'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the
principles defined in the vision?
A. Where are we now?
B. Where do we want to be?
C. How do we get there?
D. Did we get there?
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 148
Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?
1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets
2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability
3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability
goals
A. 1 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 149
In which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created?
A. An event indicates that a redundant network segment has failed but it has not impacted any
users
B. An Incident is passed to second-level support
C. A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring
Incidents
D. Incident Management has found a workaround but needs some assistance in implementing it
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 150
Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of
compliance with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value
through which part of the service lifecycle?
A. Service Transition
B. Risk Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A
