QUESTION NO: 151
Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management?
A. The IT Executive
B. The ISO27001 Standard
C. The Business
D. The Service Level Manager
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 152
Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process
A. A change to a contract with a supplier
B. A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposes
C. An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incident
D. A change to a business process that depends on IT Services
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 153
Hierarchic escalation is best described as?
A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident
B. Passing an Incident to people with a greater level of technical skill
C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer
satisfaction
D. Failing to meet the Incident resolution times specified in a Service Level Agreement
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 154
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management?
A. To prevent Problems and their resultant Incidents
B. To manage Problems throughout their lifecycle
C. To restore service to a user
D. To eliminate recurring Incidents
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 155
There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of
processes. Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below?
1. Progress
2. Effectiveness
3. Efficiency
4. ?
A. Cost
B. Conformance
C. Compliance
D. Capacity
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 156
The information that is passed to Service Transition to enable them to implement a new service is
called:
A. A Service Level Package
B. A Service Transition Package
C. A Service Design Package
D. A New Service Package
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 157
Which of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A. Definitive Media Library (DML)
B. Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. Statement of Requirements (SOR)
D. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 158
A. Reduced Total Cost of Ownership
B. Improved quality of service
C. Improved Service alignment with business goals
D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
You are reviewing a presentation that will relay the value of adopting Service Design disciplines.
Which statement would NOT be part of the value proposition?
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 159
Which of these are objectives of Service Level Management
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 160
What is the objective of Access Management?
A. To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildings
B. To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locations
C. To manage access to the Service Desk
D. To manage the right to use a service or group of services
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 161
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
A. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
C. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
D. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 162
Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?
A. 1,2 and 3 only
B. 1,2 and4 only
C. 2,3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
1. Known Error Data
2. Change Schedules
3. Service Knowledge Management System
4. The output from monitoring tools
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 163
Which of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration
Management?
A. Describes the topography of the hardware
B. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 164
"Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose
of which part of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Service Operation
B. Service Strategy
C. Service Transition
D. Continual Service Improvement
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 165
Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are
CORRECT?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Bothofthe above
D. Neitherofthe above
1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability
and the right level of control
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 166
Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST
CORRECT?
A. The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared
fordeployment; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being
considered for future development
B. The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has
information about services which are being considered for future development
C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has
information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment
D. Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thing
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 167
Data used to support the capacity management process should be stored in:
A. A configuration management database (CMDB)
B. A capacity database (CDB)
C. A configuration management system (CMS)
D. A capacity management information system (CMIS)
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 168
A consultant has made two recommendations to you in a report:
1. To include legal terminology in your Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
2. It is not necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Which of the recommendations conform to Service Level Management good practice?
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 169
Availability Management is responsible for availability of the:
A. Services and Components
B. Services and Business Processes
C. Components and Business Processes
D. Services, Components and Business Processes
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 170
Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and
processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and
customers?
A. Continual Service Improvement
B. Service Transition
C. Service Design
D. Service Operation
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 171
Which statement about the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is CORRECT?
A. The ECAB considers every high priority Request for Change
B. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes
C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
D. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 172
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
The Service Owner:
A. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
B. Is responsible for continual improvement and the management of change affecting the service
they own
C. Is a primary stakeholder in all of the underlying IT processes which support the service theyown
D. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 173
Which of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Resources are types of Service Asset and Capabilities are not
B. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset
C. Capabilities are types of Service Asset and Resources are not
D. Neither Capabilities nor Resources are types of Service Asset
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 174
The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the
Service Lifecycle?
A. Continual Service Improvement
B. Service Strategy
C. Service Design
D. Service Transition
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 175
What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?
A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
B. Reporting intervals should be set by the Service Provider
C. Reports should be produced weekly
D. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 176
Which role or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT Infrastructure?
A. Service Level Management
B. IT Operations Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 177
Which of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
C. To prevent Problems and resulting Incidents from happening
D. To detect security events and make sense of them
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 178
Identity and Rights are two major concepts involved in which one of the following processes?
A. Access Management
B. Facilities Management
C. Event Management
D. Demand Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 179
A risk is:
A. Something that won't happen
B. Something that will happen
C. Something that has happened
D. Something that might happen
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 180
What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types
known as?
A. The Service Strategy and Service Transition books
B. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
C. The Service Support and Service Delivery books
D. Pocket Guides
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 181
A Process Owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which of the following would be
expected of them?
A. Tell others about the progress of an activity
B. Perform an activity
C. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity
D. Manage an activity
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 182
Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and
impact?
A. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other
B. Urgency should be based on impact and priority
C. Impact should be based on urgency and priority
D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 183
Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment
Management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and
that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
B. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related
assets and service components that are compatible with each other
C. To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified
and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 184
Which of the following are goals of Service Operation?
1. To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage
services at agreed levels to the business
2. The successful release of services into the live environment
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Bothofthe above
D. Neitherofthe above
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 185
Which statement about Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is CORRECT?
A. They must contain legal wording because of their importance
B. There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customer
C. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity
D. Changes to the SLA can only be requested by the customer
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 186
Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items
(CIs)?
1. Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems
2. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
3. Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
4. Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade
A. 1 and 2 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 187
What does a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 188
Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase
of the lifecycle?
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
1. Data mining and workflow tools
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Release and deployment technology
4. Process Design
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 189
Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?
A. Processes and functions
B. Maturity and cost
C. The end to end service
D. Infrastructure availability
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 190
Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement
(SLA)?
A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use
B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer
C. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure
D. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 191
Which of the following statements about processes is CORRECT?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Bothofthe above
D. Neitherofthe above
1. A process is always organized around a set of objectives
2. A process should be documented
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 192
Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?
A. The Service Level Manager
B. The Business Relationship Manager
C. The Service Owner
D. The Service Continuity Manager
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 193
Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as
opposed to reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
3. Monitoring of component availability
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 194
Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralised Service Desk?
A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk
locations are in one place
C. The desk provides 24 hour global support
D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 195
What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:
1. What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6. ?
A. What is the ReturnOn Investment (ROI)?
B. How much did it cost?
C. How do we keep the momentum going?
D. What is the ValueOn Investment (VOI)?
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 196
Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is
unsuccessful?
A. Remediation Planning
B. Categorization
C. Prioritization
D. Review and Close
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 197
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 198
Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?
A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur
B. Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costs
C. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users
D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 199
Which of these is the BEST description of a release unit?
A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
B. The smallest part of a service or IT infrastructure that can be independently changed
C. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by a particular release
D. A metric for measuring the effectiveness of the Release and Deployment Management process
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 200
Which of the following BEST describes Technical Management?
A. A Function responsible for Facilities Management and building control systems
B. A Function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of
service to customers
C. Senior managers responsible for all staff within the technical support Function
D. A Function that includes the groups, departments or teamsthat provide technical expertise and
overal management of the IT Infrastructure
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 201
IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on:
1: Design of the service technology
2: Business continuity strategy
3: Business Impact Analysis
4: Risk assessment
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 202
Which of these is a reason for categorizing incidents?
A. To establish trends for use in Problem Management and other IT Service Management (ITSM)
activities
B. To ensure that the correct priority is assigned to the incident
C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 203
Which of the following activities are responsibilities of a Supplier Manager?
1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts
2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database
3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts
4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. None of the above
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 204
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?
A. The IT Director
B. The Process Owner
C. The Service Owner
D. The Customer
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 205
When should tests for a new service be designed?
A. At the same time as the service is designed
B. After the service has been designed, before the service is handed over to Service Transition
C. As part of Service Transition
D. Before the service is designed
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 206
Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:
A. Service Design: Design the processes
B. Service Strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service Operation:IT Operations Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 207
Reliability is a measure of:
A. The availability of a service or component
B. The level of risk that could impact a service or process
C. How long a service or component can perform its function withoutfailing
D. A measure of how quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 208
What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process?
A. Measurements that match the customer's perception of the service
B. Clear, concise, unambiguous wording in the Service LevelAgreements(SLAs)
C. Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectively measured
D. Involving customers in drafting Service Level Requirements
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 209
Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?
A. Network Management and Application Management
B. Technical Management and Change Management
C. IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
D. Facilities Management and Release Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 210
As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which
of the following service provider types?
1. An internal service provider embedded within a business unit
2. An internal service provider that provides shared IT services
3. An external service provider
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 211
What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?
A. Rapid, one-off improvement
B. Return on investment within 12 months
C. Quick wins
D. Steady, ongoing improvement
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 212
The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:
A. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services
B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
C. To create and populate a Service Catalogue
D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 213
Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and
relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure?
A. Service Level Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Service Asset and Configuration Management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 214
What is the Service Pipeline?
A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage
B. All services except those that have been retired
C. All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. All complex multi-user services
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 215
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management
has been established
B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations
should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management
C. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established
at the same time
D. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party
provider
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 216
Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System
(CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?
A. The Asset Register
B. The Service Knowledge Management System
C. The Known Error Database
D. The Information Management System
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 217
Where should details of a Workaround always be documented?
A. The Service Level Agreement (SLA)
B. The Problem Record
C. The Availability Management Information System
D. The IT Service Continuity Plan
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 218
What are Request Models used for?
A. Capacity Management
B. Modelling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests
C. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as
local or remote
D. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 219
Consider the following list:
1. Change Authority
2. Change Manager
3. Change Advisory Board (CAB)
What are these BEST described as?
A. Job descriptions
B. Functions
C. Teams
D. Roles, people or groups
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 220
Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement
(SLA)?
A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
B. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use
C. An SLA that covers all customers for all services
D. An SLA for a service with no customers
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 221
In terms of adding value to the business, which of the following describes Service Operation's
contribution?
A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated
B. Measures for optimization are identified
C. Service value ismodelled
D. Service value is actually seen by customers
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 222
A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:
A. The RACI Model
B. A Release Package
C. A Request Model
D. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 223
Why are public frameworks and standards (such as ITIL) attractive when compared to proprietary
knowledge?
A. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is oftenundocumented
B. Public standards are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 224
Which of the following are types of communication you could expect the functions within Service
Operation to perform?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
1. Communication between Data Centre shifts
2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 225
Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part
of the service lifecycle?
A. Service Operation
B. Service Transition
C. Continual Service Improvement
D. Service Strategy
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 226
Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?
A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available
B. Only incidents reported to the Service Desk can be logged
C. All incidents must be fully logged
D. The Service Desk decide which incidents to log
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 227
In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?1 is
underpinned by which set of activities?
A. Baseline assessments
B. Service and process improvements
C. Taking measurements and recording metrics
D. Setting measurement targets
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 228
Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular
basis?
A. The Service Level Manager
B. The IT Service Continuity Manager
C. The Service Catalogue Manager
D. The Supplier Manager
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 229
Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?
A. To ensure that the organization can continue to operate in the event of a major disruption or
disaster
B. To ensure that the workplace is a safe environment for its employees and customers
C. To ensure that the organization assets, such as information, facilities and building are protected
from threats, damage or loss
D. To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 230
Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit?
A. A measurement of cost
B. A function described within Service Transition
C. The team of people responsible for implementing a release
D. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 231
Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role?
A. Demand Management
B. Supplier Management
C. Service Desk
D. RequestFulfilment
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 232
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Process owners are more important to service management than service owners
B. Service owners are more important to service management than process owners
C. Service owners are as important to service management as process owners
D. Process owners and service owners are not required within the same organization
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 233
Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?
A. A Service Level Agreement (SLA)
B. A Request for Change (RFC)
C. The Service Portfolio
D. A Service Description
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 234
The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is
referred to as what?
A. The utility of a service
B. The warranty of a service
C. The economic value of a service
D. Return on investment
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 235
What are the two major processes in Problem Management?
A. Technical and Service
B. Resource and Proactive
C. Reactive and Technical
D. Proactive and Reactive
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 236
Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?
A. The Change Advisory Board
B. A person that provides formalauthorisation for a particular type of change.
C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formalauthorisation for a particular type of
change.
D. The Change Manager who provides formal authorisation for each change
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 237
Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the
levels agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the responsibility of which role?
A. The Service Level Manager
B. The Configuration Manager
C. The Change Manager
D. The Information Security Manager
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 238
Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A. Service Design
B. Service Transition
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 239
Identify the input to the Problem Management process
A. Request for Change
B. Problem Resolution
C. Incident Records
D. New Known Errors
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 240
Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during
Release and Deployment?
A. Early Life Support
B. Service Test Manager
C. Evaluation
D. Release Packaging and Build Manager
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 241
The Service Catalogue Manager has responsibility for producing and maintaining the Service
Catalogue. One of their responsibilities would be?
A. Negotiating and agreeing Service Level Agreement
B. Negotiating and agreeing Operational Level Agreements
C. Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected and backed-
up.
D. Only ensure that adequate technical resources are available.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 242
Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?
A. The value of a service
B. Customer satisfaction
C. Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)
D. Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 243
Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes?
A. Capacity Management
B. Incident Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Financial Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 244
Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and
metrics?:
1. The services
2. The architectures
3. The configuration items
4. The processes
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 245
Service Design emphasises the importance of the Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list
of these Four Ps?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
A. People, Products, Partners, Profit
B. People, Process, Products, Partners
C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit
D. People, Potential, Products, Performance
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 246
With which process is Problem Management likely to share categorization and impact coding
systems?
A. Incident Management
B. Service Asset and Configuration Management
C. Capacity Management
D. IT Service Continuity
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 247
In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against
targets?
A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
B. Capacity Plan
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 248
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data Base
B. The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management System
C. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system
D. The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 249
Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments
and organizational strategies?
A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
B. The Service Support book
C. Pocket Guides
D. The Service Strategy book
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 250
What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and
represents a set of items that are related to each other?
A. Configuration Baseline
B. Project Baseline
C. Change Baseline
D. Asset Baseline
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 251
Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?
A. The Service Provider
B. The Service Level Manager
C. The Customer
D. The Finance department
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 252
Which of the following would a Major Problem Review examine?
1. Things that were done correctly
2. Those things that were done incorrectly
3. How to prevent recurrence
4. What could be done better in the future
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 253
What is the name of the area where the definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration
Items(Cls) are stored and protected?
A. Definitive Media Library
B. Definitive Software Store
C. Service Knowledge Management System
D. Software Secure Library
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 254
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in Knowledge Management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 255
Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfilment are part
of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Transition
C. Service Operation
D. Continual Service Improvement
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 256
Which of the following are aspects of Service Design?
1. Architectures
2. Technology
3. Service Management processes
4. Metrics
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 257
Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?
A. An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database
B. A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item
C. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration
Management
D. Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 258
Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure?
A. Incident Model
B. Problem Model
C. Configuration Model
D. Change Model
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 259
The BEST processes to automate are those that are:
A. Carried out by Service Operations
B. Carried out by lots of people
C. Critical to the success of the business mission
D. Simple and well understood
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 260
Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as
opposed to reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
3. Monitoring of component availability
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 261
What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?
A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization
C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis
D. A document that describes business services to operational staff
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 262
How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?
A. As many as necessary to complete the activity
B. Only one - the process owner
C. Two - the process owner and the process enactor
D. Only one - the process architect
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 263
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work
B. We must be able to measure them in a relevant manner
C. They deliver specific results
D. They respond to specific events
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 264
Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?
1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Responsibilities
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 265
The Supplier Management process includes:
1: Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service
requirements
2: Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements
3: Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs
of the business
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. All of the above
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 266
Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
A. Change Management
B. Service Transition
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Design
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 267
Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be
easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained?
A. Categorization
B. Logging
C. Prioritization
D. Closure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 268
Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
1. Local Service Desk
2. Virtual Service Desk
3. IT Help Desk
4. Follow the Sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 269
What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual
Service Improvement (CSI)?
A. ReturnOn Investment (ROI), Value On Investment (VOI), quality
B. Strategic, tactical and operational
C. Critical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activities
D. Technology, process and service
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 270
Which of the following might be used to manage an Incident?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Bothofthe above
D. Neitherofthe above
1. Incident Model
2. Known Error Record
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 271
Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
A. Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)
B. Customer and User satisfaction
C. Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 272
Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?
A. Do
B. Perform
C. Implement
D. Measure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 273
Which process is primarily supported by the analysis of Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. Availability Management
B. Demand Management
C. Financial Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 274
A change process model should include:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
1 - The steps that should be taken to handle the change with any dependences or co-processing
defined, including handling issues and unexpected events
2 - Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3 - Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4 - Complaints procedures
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 275
Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider's ability to handle high
volumes of what?
A. Service level requests
B. Changes and Releases
C. Password resets
D. Incidents and Problems
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 276
Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?
1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2. Check that user is satisfied with the outcome
A. 1 only
B. Both of the above
C. 2 only
D. Neither of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 277
Which of the following is an objective of Release and Deployment Management?
A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
B. To ensure all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the
Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. To ensure that overall business risk of Change is optimized
D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 278
Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: The Total Cost of Ownership
(TCO) of a service can be minimised if all aspects of the service, the processes and the
technology are considered during development?
A. Service Design
B. Service Strategy
C. Service Operation
D. Continual Service Improvement
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 279
Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of
incidents that cannot be prevented?
A. Service Level Management
B. Problem Management
C. Change Management
D. Event Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 280
A Service Design Package should be produced for which of the following?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
1. A new IT service
2. A major change to an IT service
3. An Emergency Change to an IT service
4. An IT service retirement
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 281
Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?
A. A Known Error for which the cause and resolution are not yet known
B. The cause of two or more Incidents
C. A serious Incident which has a critical impact to the business
D. The cause of one or more Incidents
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 282
A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
1. Documenting the process
2. Defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
3. Improving the process
4. Ensuring process staff undertake the required training
A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 283
Contracts are used to define:
A. The provision of IT services or business services by a Service Provider
B. The provision of goods and services by Suppliers
C. Service Levels that have been agreed between the Service Provider and their Customer
D. Metrics and Critical Success Factors (CSFs) in an external agreement
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 284
In the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners". Products refers to:
A. IT Infrastructure and Applications
B. Services, technology and tools
C. Goods provided by third parties to support the IT Services
D. All assets belonging to the Service Provider
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 285
Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
A. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment
Management
B. Change Management, Capacity Management Event Management, Service Request
Management
C. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration
Management
D. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management,
RequestFulfilment
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 286
Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A. People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B. People, Process, Products, Technology
C. People, Process, Products, Partners
D. People, Products, Technology, Partners
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 287
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Event?
A. Any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT
infrastructure
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service
C. The unknown cause of one or more Incidents
D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an Incident or Problem
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 288
Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard
services?
A. RequestFulfilment
B. Service Portfolio Management
C. Service Desk
D. IT Finance
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 289
Undertaking a gap analysis is a key activity within which part of the Deming Cycle for improving
services and service management processes?
A. Plan
B. Do
C. Check
D. Act
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 290
Which of the following is the BEST description of a Business Case?
A. A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action
B. A portable device designed for the secure storage and transportation of important documents
C. A complaint by the business about a missed service level.
D. The terms and conditions in an IT outsource contract.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 291
Which of the following could BEST be described as "A decision support and planning tool that
projects
the likely consequences of a business action"?
A. A Problem model
B. A Service Improvement Plan (SIP)
C. A Request for Change (RFC)
D. A Business Case
Answer: D
Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management?
A. The IT Executive
B. The ISO27001 Standard
C. The Business
D. The Service Level Manager
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 152
Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process
A. A change to a contract with a supplier
B. A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposes
C. An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incident
D. A change to a business process that depends on IT Services
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 153
Hierarchic escalation is best described as?
A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident
B. Passing an Incident to people with a greater level of technical skill
C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer
satisfaction
D. Failing to meet the Incident resolution times specified in a Service Level Agreement
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 154
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management?
A. To prevent Problems and their resultant Incidents
B. To manage Problems throughout their lifecycle
C. To restore service to a user
D. To eliminate recurring Incidents
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 155
There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of
processes. Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below?
1. Progress
2. Effectiveness
3. Efficiency
4. ?
A. Cost
B. Conformance
C. Compliance
D. Capacity
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 156
The information that is passed to Service Transition to enable them to implement a new service is
called:
A. A Service Level Package
B. A Service Transition Package
C. A Service Design Package
D. A New Service Package
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 157
Which of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A. Definitive Media Library (DML)
B. Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. Statement of Requirements (SOR)
D. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 158
A. Reduced Total Cost of Ownership
B. Improved quality of service
C. Improved Service alignment with business goals
D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
You are reviewing a presentation that will relay the value of adopting Service Design disciplines.
Which statement would NOT be part of the value proposition?
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 159
Which of these are objectives of Service Level Management
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 160
What is the objective of Access Management?
A. To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildings
B. To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locations
C. To manage access to the Service Desk
D. To manage the right to use a service or group of services
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 161
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
A. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
C. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
D. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 162
Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?
A. 1,2 and 3 only
B. 1,2 and4 only
C. 2,3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
1. Known Error Data
2. Change Schedules
3. Service Knowledge Management System
4. The output from monitoring tools
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 163
Which of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration
Management?
A. Describes the topography of the hardware
B. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 164
"Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose
of which part of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Service Operation
B. Service Strategy
C. Service Transition
D. Continual Service Improvement
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 165
Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are
CORRECT?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Bothofthe above
D. Neitherofthe above
1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability
and the right level of control
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 166
Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST
CORRECT?
A. The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared
fordeployment; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being
considered for future development
B. The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has
information about services which are being considered for future development
C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has
information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment
D. Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thing
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 167
Data used to support the capacity management process should be stored in:
A. A configuration management database (CMDB)
B. A capacity database (CDB)
C. A configuration management system (CMS)
D. A capacity management information system (CMIS)
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 168
A consultant has made two recommendations to you in a report:
1. To include legal terminology in your Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
2. It is not necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Which of the recommendations conform to Service Level Management good practice?
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 169
Availability Management is responsible for availability of the:
A. Services and Components
B. Services and Business Processes
C. Components and Business Processes
D. Services, Components and Business Processes
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 170
Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and
processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and
customers?
A. Continual Service Improvement
B. Service Transition
C. Service Design
D. Service Operation
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 171
Which statement about the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is CORRECT?
A. The ECAB considers every high priority Request for Change
B. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes
C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
D. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 172
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
The Service Owner:
A. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
B. Is responsible for continual improvement and the management of change affecting the service
they own
C. Is a primary stakeholder in all of the underlying IT processes which support the service theyown
D. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 173
Which of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Resources are types of Service Asset and Capabilities are not
B. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset
C. Capabilities are types of Service Asset and Resources are not
D. Neither Capabilities nor Resources are types of Service Asset
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 174
The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the
Service Lifecycle?
A. Continual Service Improvement
B. Service Strategy
C. Service Design
D. Service Transition
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 175
What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?
A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
B. Reporting intervals should be set by the Service Provider
C. Reports should be produced weekly
D. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 176
Which role or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT Infrastructure?
A. Service Level Management
B. IT Operations Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 177
Which of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
C. To prevent Problems and resulting Incidents from happening
D. To detect security events and make sense of them
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 178
Identity and Rights are two major concepts involved in which one of the following processes?
A. Access Management
B. Facilities Management
C. Event Management
D. Demand Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 179
A risk is:
A. Something that won't happen
B. Something that will happen
C. Something that has happened
D. Something that might happen
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 180
What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types
known as?
A. The Service Strategy and Service Transition books
B. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
C. The Service Support and Service Delivery books
D. Pocket Guides
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 181
A Process Owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which of the following would be
expected of them?
A. Tell others about the progress of an activity
B. Perform an activity
C. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity
D. Manage an activity
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 182
Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and
impact?
A. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other
B. Urgency should be based on impact and priority
C. Impact should be based on urgency and priority
D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 183
Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment
Management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and
that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
B. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related
assets and service components that are compatible with each other
C. To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified
and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 184
Which of the following are goals of Service Operation?
1. To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage
services at agreed levels to the business
2. The successful release of services into the live environment
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Bothofthe above
D. Neitherofthe above
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 185
Which statement about Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is CORRECT?
A. They must contain legal wording because of their importance
B. There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customer
C. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity
D. Changes to the SLA can only be requested by the customer
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 186
Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items
(CIs)?
1. Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems
2. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
3. Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
4. Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade
A. 1 and 2 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 187
What does a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 188
Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase
of the lifecycle?
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
1. Data mining and workflow tools
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Release and deployment technology
4. Process Design
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 189
Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?
A. Processes and functions
B. Maturity and cost
C. The end to end service
D. Infrastructure availability
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 190
Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement
(SLA)?
A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use
B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer
C. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure
D. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 191
Which of the following statements about processes is CORRECT?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Bothofthe above
D. Neitherofthe above
1. A process is always organized around a set of objectives
2. A process should be documented
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 192
Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?
A. The Service Level Manager
B. The Business Relationship Manager
C. The Service Owner
D. The Service Continuity Manager
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 193
Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as
opposed to reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
3. Monitoring of component availability
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 194
Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralised Service Desk?
A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk
locations are in one place
C. The desk provides 24 hour global support
D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 195
What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:
1. What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6. ?
A. What is the ReturnOn Investment (ROI)?
B. How much did it cost?
C. How do we keep the momentum going?
D. What is the ValueOn Investment (VOI)?
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 196
Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is
unsuccessful?
A. Remediation Planning
B. Categorization
C. Prioritization
D. Review and Close
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 197
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 198
Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?
A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur
B. Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costs
C. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users
D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 199
Which of these is the BEST description of a release unit?
A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
B. The smallest part of a service or IT infrastructure that can be independently changed
C. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by a particular release
D. A metric for measuring the effectiveness of the Release and Deployment Management process
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 200
Which of the following BEST describes Technical Management?
A. A Function responsible for Facilities Management and building control systems
B. A Function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of
service to customers
C. Senior managers responsible for all staff within the technical support Function
D. A Function that includes the groups, departments or teamsthat provide technical expertise and
overal management of the IT Infrastructure
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 201
IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on:
1: Design of the service technology
2: Business continuity strategy
3: Business Impact Analysis
4: Risk assessment
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 202
Which of these is a reason for categorizing incidents?
A. To establish trends for use in Problem Management and other IT Service Management (ITSM)
activities
B. To ensure that the correct priority is assigned to the incident
C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 203
Which of the following activities are responsibilities of a Supplier Manager?
1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts
2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database
3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts
4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. None of the above
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 204
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?
A. The IT Director
B. The Process Owner
C. The Service Owner
D. The Customer
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 205
When should tests for a new service be designed?
A. At the same time as the service is designed
B. After the service has been designed, before the service is handed over to Service Transition
C. As part of Service Transition
D. Before the service is designed
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 206
Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:
A. Service Design: Design the processes
B. Service Strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service Operation:IT Operations Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 207
Reliability is a measure of:
A. The availability of a service or component
B. The level of risk that could impact a service or process
C. How long a service or component can perform its function withoutfailing
D. A measure of how quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 208
What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process?
A. Measurements that match the customer's perception of the service
B. Clear, concise, unambiguous wording in the Service LevelAgreements(SLAs)
C. Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectively measured
D. Involving customers in drafting Service Level Requirements
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 209
Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?
A. Network Management and Application Management
B. Technical Management and Change Management
C. IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
D. Facilities Management and Release Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 210
As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which
of the following service provider types?
1. An internal service provider embedded within a business unit
2. An internal service provider that provides shared IT services
3. An external service provider
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 211
What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?
A. Rapid, one-off improvement
B. Return on investment within 12 months
C. Quick wins
D. Steady, ongoing improvement
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 212
The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:
A. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services
B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
C. To create and populate a Service Catalogue
D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 213
Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and
relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure?
A. Service Level Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Service Asset and Configuration Management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 214
What is the Service Pipeline?
A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage
B. All services except those that have been retired
C. All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. All complex multi-user services
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 215
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management
has been established
B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations
should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management
C. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established
at the same time
D. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party
provider
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 216
Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System
(CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?
A. The Asset Register
B. The Service Knowledge Management System
C. The Known Error Database
D. The Information Management System
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 217
Where should details of a Workaround always be documented?
A. The Service Level Agreement (SLA)
B. The Problem Record
C. The Availability Management Information System
D. The IT Service Continuity Plan
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 218
What are Request Models used for?
A. Capacity Management
B. Modelling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests
C. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as
local or remote
D. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 219
Consider the following list:
1. Change Authority
2. Change Manager
3. Change Advisory Board (CAB)
What are these BEST described as?
A. Job descriptions
B. Functions
C. Teams
D. Roles, people or groups
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 220
Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement
(SLA)?
A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
B. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use
C. An SLA that covers all customers for all services
D. An SLA for a service with no customers
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 221
In terms of adding value to the business, which of the following describes Service Operation's
contribution?
A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated
B. Measures for optimization are identified
C. Service value ismodelled
D. Service value is actually seen by customers
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 222
A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:
A. The RACI Model
B. A Release Package
C. A Request Model
D. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 223
Why are public frameworks and standards (such as ITIL) attractive when compared to proprietary
knowledge?
A. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is oftenundocumented
B. Public standards are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 224
Which of the following are types of communication you could expect the functions within Service
Operation to perform?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
1. Communication between Data Centre shifts
2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 225
Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part
of the service lifecycle?
A. Service Operation
B. Service Transition
C. Continual Service Improvement
D. Service Strategy
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 226
Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?
A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available
B. Only incidents reported to the Service Desk can be logged
C. All incidents must be fully logged
D. The Service Desk decide which incidents to log
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 227
In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?1 is
underpinned by which set of activities?
A. Baseline assessments
B. Service and process improvements
C. Taking measurements and recording metrics
D. Setting measurement targets
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 228
Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular
basis?
A. The Service Level Manager
B. The IT Service Continuity Manager
C. The Service Catalogue Manager
D. The Supplier Manager
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 229
Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?
A. To ensure that the organization can continue to operate in the event of a major disruption or
disaster
B. To ensure that the workplace is a safe environment for its employees and customers
C. To ensure that the organization assets, such as information, facilities and building are protected
from threats, damage or loss
D. To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 230
Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit?
A. A measurement of cost
B. A function described within Service Transition
C. The team of people responsible for implementing a release
D. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 231
Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role?
A. Demand Management
B. Supplier Management
C. Service Desk
D. RequestFulfilment
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 232
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Process owners are more important to service management than service owners
B. Service owners are more important to service management than process owners
C. Service owners are as important to service management as process owners
D. Process owners and service owners are not required within the same organization
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 233
Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?
A. A Service Level Agreement (SLA)
B. A Request for Change (RFC)
C. The Service Portfolio
D. A Service Description
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 234
The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is
referred to as what?
A. The utility of a service
B. The warranty of a service
C. The economic value of a service
D. Return on investment
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 235
What are the two major processes in Problem Management?
A. Technical and Service
B. Resource and Proactive
C. Reactive and Technical
D. Proactive and Reactive
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 236
Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?
A. The Change Advisory Board
B. A person that provides formalauthorisation for a particular type of change.
C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formalauthorisation for a particular type of
change.
D. The Change Manager who provides formal authorisation for each change
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 237
Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the
levels agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the responsibility of which role?
A. The Service Level Manager
B. The Configuration Manager
C. The Change Manager
D. The Information Security Manager
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 238
Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A. Service Design
B. Service Transition
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 239
Identify the input to the Problem Management process
A. Request for Change
B. Problem Resolution
C. Incident Records
D. New Known Errors
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 240
Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during
Release and Deployment?
A. Early Life Support
B. Service Test Manager
C. Evaluation
D. Release Packaging and Build Manager
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 241
The Service Catalogue Manager has responsibility for producing and maintaining the Service
Catalogue. One of their responsibilities would be?
A. Negotiating and agreeing Service Level Agreement
B. Negotiating and agreeing Operational Level Agreements
C. Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected and backed-
up.
D. Only ensure that adequate technical resources are available.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 242
Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?
A. The value of a service
B. Customer satisfaction
C. Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)
D. Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 243
Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes?
A. Capacity Management
B. Incident Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Financial Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 244
Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and
metrics?:
1. The services
2. The architectures
3. The configuration items
4. The processes
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 245
Service Design emphasises the importance of the Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list
of these Four Ps?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
A. People, Products, Partners, Profit
B. People, Process, Products, Partners
C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit
D. People, Potential, Products, Performance
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 246
With which process is Problem Management likely to share categorization and impact coding
systems?
A. Incident Management
B. Service Asset and Configuration Management
C. Capacity Management
D. IT Service Continuity
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 247
In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against
targets?
A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
B. Capacity Plan
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 248
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data Base
B. The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management System
C. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system
D. The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 249
Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments
and organizational strategies?
A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
B. The Service Support book
C. Pocket Guides
D. The Service Strategy book
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 250
What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and
represents a set of items that are related to each other?
A. Configuration Baseline
B. Project Baseline
C. Change Baseline
D. Asset Baseline
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 251
Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?
A. The Service Provider
B. The Service Level Manager
C. The Customer
D. The Finance department
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 252
Which of the following would a Major Problem Review examine?
1. Things that were done correctly
2. Those things that were done incorrectly
3. How to prevent recurrence
4. What could be done better in the future
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 253
What is the name of the area where the definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration
Items(Cls) are stored and protected?
A. Definitive Media Library
B. Definitive Software Store
C. Service Knowledge Management System
D. Software Secure Library
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 254
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in Knowledge Management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 255
Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfilment are part
of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Transition
C. Service Operation
D. Continual Service Improvement
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 256
Which of the following are aspects of Service Design?
1. Architectures
2. Technology
3. Service Management processes
4. Metrics
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 257
Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?
A. An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database
B. A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item
C. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration
Management
D. Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 258
Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure?
A. Incident Model
B. Problem Model
C. Configuration Model
D. Change Model
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 259
The BEST processes to automate are those that are:
A. Carried out by Service Operations
B. Carried out by lots of people
C. Critical to the success of the business mission
D. Simple and well understood
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 260
Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as
opposed to reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
3. Monitoring of component availability
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 261
What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?
A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization
C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis
D. A document that describes business services to operational staff
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 262
How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?
A. As many as necessary to complete the activity
B. Only one - the process owner
C. Two - the process owner and the process enactor
D. Only one - the process architect
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 263
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work
B. We must be able to measure them in a relevant manner
C. They deliver specific results
D. They respond to specific events
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 264
Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?
1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Responsibilities
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 265
The Supplier Management process includes:
1: Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service
requirements
2: Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements
3: Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs
of the business
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. All of the above
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 266
Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
A. Change Management
B. Service Transition
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Design
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 267
Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be
easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained?
A. Categorization
B. Logging
C. Prioritization
D. Closure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 268
Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
1. Local Service Desk
2. Virtual Service Desk
3. IT Help Desk
4. Follow the Sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 269
What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual
Service Improvement (CSI)?
A. ReturnOn Investment (ROI), Value On Investment (VOI), quality
B. Strategic, tactical and operational
C. Critical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activities
D. Technology, process and service
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 270
Which of the following might be used to manage an Incident?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Bothofthe above
D. Neitherofthe above
1. Incident Model
2. Known Error Record
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 271
Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
A. Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)
B. Customer and User satisfaction
C. Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 272
Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?
A. Do
B. Perform
C. Implement
D. Measure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 273
Which process is primarily supported by the analysis of Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. Availability Management
B. Demand Management
C. Financial Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 274
A change process model should include:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
1 - The steps that should be taken to handle the change with any dependences or co-processing
defined, including handling issues and unexpected events
2 - Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3 - Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4 - Complaints procedures
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 275
Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider's ability to handle high
volumes of what?
A. Service level requests
B. Changes and Releases
C. Password resets
D. Incidents and Problems
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 276
Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?
1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2. Check that user is satisfied with the outcome
A. 1 only
B. Both of the above
C. 2 only
D. Neither of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 277
Which of the following is an objective of Release and Deployment Management?
A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
B. To ensure all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the
Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. To ensure that overall business risk of Change is optimized
D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 278
Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: The Total Cost of Ownership
(TCO) of a service can be minimised if all aspects of the service, the processes and the
technology are considered during development?
A. Service Design
B. Service Strategy
C. Service Operation
D. Continual Service Improvement
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 279
Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of
incidents that cannot be prevented?
A. Service Level Management
B. Problem Management
C. Change Management
D. Event Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 280
A Service Design Package should be produced for which of the following?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
1. A new IT service
2. A major change to an IT service
3. An Emergency Change to an IT service
4. An IT service retirement
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 281
Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?
A. A Known Error for which the cause and resolution are not yet known
B. The cause of two or more Incidents
C. A serious Incident which has a critical impact to the business
D. The cause of one or more Incidents
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 282
A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
1. Documenting the process
2. Defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
3. Improving the process
4. Ensuring process staff undertake the required training
A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 283
Contracts are used to define:
A. The provision of IT services or business services by a Service Provider
B. The provision of goods and services by Suppliers
C. Service Levels that have been agreed between the Service Provider and their Customer
D. Metrics and Critical Success Factors (CSFs) in an external agreement
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 284
In the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners". Products refers to:
A. IT Infrastructure and Applications
B. Services, technology and tools
C. Goods provided by third parties to support the IT Services
D. All assets belonging to the Service Provider
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 285
Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
A. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment
Management
B. Change Management, Capacity Management Event Management, Service Request
Management
C. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration
Management
D. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management,
RequestFulfilment
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 286
Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A. People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B. People, Process, Products, Technology
C. People, Process, Products, Partners
D. People, Products, Technology, Partners
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 287
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Event?
A. Any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT
infrastructure
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service
C. The unknown cause of one or more Incidents
D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an Incident or Problem
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 288
Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard
services?
A. RequestFulfilment
B. Service Portfolio Management
C. Service Desk
D. IT Finance
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 289
Undertaking a gap analysis is a key activity within which part of the Deming Cycle for improving
services and service management processes?
A. Plan
B. Do
C. Check
D. Act
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 290
Which of the following is the BEST description of a Business Case?
A. A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action
B. A portable device designed for the secure storage and transportation of important documents
C. A complaint by the business about a missed service level.
D. The terms and conditions in an IT outsource contract.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 291
Which of the following could BEST be described as "A decision support and planning tool that
projects
the likely consequences of a business action"?
A. A Problem model
B. A Service Improvement Plan (SIP)
C. A Request for Change (RFC)
D. A Business Case
Answer: D
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